South Asia is witnessing a profound political shift as traditional establishments face rising challenges from digitally empowered youth. Across India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, and Nepal, anti-establishment sentiments — driven by Gen-Z voters, social media, memes, and widespread frustration over unemployment, inequality, and dynastic politics — are reshaping political discourse, electoral outcomes, and democratic institutions.

Anti-establishment politics challenges existing power structures — political parties, dynasties, bureaucracy, mainstream media, and elites — portraying them as corrupt, disconnected, and unrepresentative. At its core is the belief that “the system” no longer serves ordinary citizens.

This phenomenon is amplified by:

• Rising educated unemployment
• Economic inequality
• Declining trust in institutions
• Digital connectivity and social media

1. Demographic Youth Bulge South Asia has one of the youngest populations globally. Millions of educated youth enter the job market annually, but face limited opportunities, leading to frustration, brain drain, and resentment against the establishment.

2. Digital Transformation of Politics Smartphones and cheap internet have democratised political participation. Platforms like Instagram, YouTube, TikTok, and X have become primary battlegrounds.

• Meme Politics: Memes simplify complex issues, spread rapidly, reduce fear of authority, and shape public opinion more effectively than traditional campaigns.
• Rise of new political actors: YouTubers, influencers, podcasters, and meme page admins often enjoy higher credibility among youth than conventional leaders.

3. Erosion of Traditional Ideological Politics Loyalty to parties and ideologies is declining. Politics is becoming more personalised, emotional, performative, and identity-driven.

• India: Digital polarisation, youth anxiety over jobs, inflation, and institutional credibility. Nationalist and opposition narratives both use anti-establishment framing.
• Pakistan: Strong anti-dynasty and anti-establishment mobilisation, boosted by digital campaigns.
• Bangladesh: Student-led protests and digital activism demanding accountability.
• Sri Lanka: The “Aragalaya” movement exemplified massive anti-establishment uprising against dynastic politics and economic mismanagement.

• Algorithm-driven polarisation and outrage
• Rapid spread of misinformation and fake news
• Erosion of trust in elections, judiciary, and media
• Potential for political instability and radicalisation
• Threat of democratic backsliding due to chronic distrust

This wave reflects deeper structural issues — aspiration gaps, governance deficits, and a crisis of representation. While it signals vibrant democratic energy among youth, unchecked anti-establishment sentiment can lead to chronic instability if institutions fail to respond with reforms.

• Strengthening democratic institutions and trust-building
• Generating quality employment and improving social mobility
• Promoting constructive digital engagement and media literacy
• Greater political consultation and inclusive governance
• Channeling youth energy into meaningful reforms rather than destructive dissent

Prelims

• Key Terms: Anti-Establishment Politics, Gen-Z Politics, Meme Culture, Digital Populism, Aragalaya Movement.

GS-2 (Polity & Governance)

• Democratic challenges in South Asia, Role of social media in politics, Youth bulge and political participation, Erosion of institutional trust.

GS-1 (Society)

• Youth demographics, Social movements, Changing nature of political mobilisation.

Essay / Interview

• “Digital Democracy and the Rise of Anti-Establishment Politics in South Asia.”
• “From Anger to Aspiration: Can South Asian Democracies Channel Youth Dissent into Constructive Reform?”
• “Social Media: Democratiser or Polariser of Politics?”

1. Which of the following best describes “Anti-Establishment Narratives” in the current South Asian context?
   (a) Support for traditional political parties and dynasties
   (b) Challenges to existing power structures through digital mobilisation and youth discontent
   (c) Promotion of authoritarian governance models
   (d) Focus on foreign policy issues only

Answer: (b)

2. The “Aragalaya” movement is associated with which country?
   (a) Pakistan
   (b) Bangladesh
   (c) Sri Lanka
   (d) Nepal

Answer: (c)

3. Consider the following statements:

1. Meme culture has emerged as a powerful tool in shaping political narratives in South Asia.
2. Gen-Z voters show declining loyalty to traditional political parties.
3. South Asia’s youth bulge is a major driver of anti-establishment sentiments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (c)

4. Which of the following is a major risk associated with the rise of digital anti-establishment politics?
   (a) Increased trust in mainstream media
   (b) Algorithm-driven polarisation and spread of misinformation
   (c) Decline in youth political participation
   (d) Strengthening of traditional party structures

Answer: (b)

1. “The rise of anti-establishment narratives in South Asia reflects a deeper crisis of democratic trust and institutional legitimacy.” Examine the causes and discuss its implications for the future of democracy in the region. (15 marks / 250 words)

2. Analyse the role of social media and meme culture in shaping contemporary politics in South Asia. How can democratic institutions adapt to this new digital reality? (10 marks / 150 words)

The National Commodities and Derivatives Exchange (NCDEX) has launched RAINMUMBAI, India’s first SEBI-approved exchange-traded weather derivatives contract. This innovative financial instrument aims to help individuals, farmers, businesses, and industries hedge against the risks posed by unpredictable monsoon rainfall and weather variability in Mumbai.

This launch marks a significant milestone in India’s financial market development, especially for climate risk management.

• It is India’s first exchange-traded weather derivative product.
• Launched by NCDEX with approval from the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
• Developed in collaboration with the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Bombay.
• The contract is based on rainfall data of Mumbai.
• Data sources: India Meteorological Department (IMD) observations from Santacruz and Colaba weather stations.
• It is a cash-settled contract that tracks the deviation of actual rainfall from Mumbai’s Long Period Average (LPA) during the monsoon season.
• Available for trading in the months of June, July, August, and September.
• Contract lot size: Base value of ₹50 per millimetre of rainfall deviation.
• Trading hours: 10:00 a.m. to 11:30 p.m. on weekdays.

Weather derivatives are financial instruments used to hedge against financial losses caused by adverse weather conditions. Unlike traditional insurance, these products are settled based on objective weather data (not actual physical loss), enabling faster payouts and lower operational costs.

They are widely used globally in sectors such as:

• Agriculture
• Power & Energy
• Construction
• Logistics & Transportation
• Tourism
• Insurance & Reinsurance

• Helps mitigate risks from monsoon variability (deficient or excess rainfall).
• Provides quick and transparent settlement based on IMD data.
• Allows market participants (farmers, businesses, insurers) to manage climate-related financial risks effectively.
• Promotes the development of a weather risk management market in India.

• Established in 2003.
• Headquartered in Mumbai.
• One of India’s leading commodity exchanges focusing primarily on agricultural commodities.
• Regulated by SEBI.
• Facilitates electronic trading in futures and derivatives contracts.

• A major step towards climate-resilient financial tools in India.
• Addresses the growing impact of climate change on the Indian economy, especially agriculture and urban infrastructure.
• Expected to encourage similar contracts for other cities and commodities in the future.
• Strengthens India’s position in innovative financial products and risk management.

Prelims

• Key Terms: Weather Derivatives, RAINMUMBAI, NCDEX, SEBI, IMD, Long Period Average (LPA), Cash-settled Contracts.

GS-3 (Economy & Agriculture)

• Financial inclusion, Risk management in agriculture, Climate change impact on economy, Commodity derivatives market.

GS-3 (Disaster Management & Environment)

• Climate risk hedging, Monsoon variability, Innovative tools for disaster risk reduction.

Essay / Interview

• “Innovative Financial Instruments are Essential for Building Climate Resilience in India.”
• “From Weather Insurance to Weather Derivatives: The Next Frontier in Risk Management.”

1. With reference to “RAINMUMBAI”, consider the following statements:

1. It is India’s first exchange-traded weather derivatives contract.
2. It has been launched by the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE).
3. The contract is based on rainfall data of Mumbai.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

2. RAINMUMBAI contract is settled on the basis of:
   (a) Actual crop loss suffered by farmers
   (b) Deviation of actual rainfall from Long Period Average (LPA)
   (c) Market price of agricultural commodities
   (d) Temperature variations in Mumbai

Answer: (b) Deviation of actual rainfall from Long Period Average (LPA)

3. Consider the following statements regarding Weather Derivatives:

1. They are settled against observed weather data rather than physical loss.
2. They enable faster payouts compared to traditional insurance.
3. They are primarily used only by farmers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

4. Which of the following organisations provided technical collaboration for the development of RAINMUMBAI?
   (a) Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM)
   (b) Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Bombay
   (c) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
   (d) National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT)

Answer: (a) Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM)

5. RAINMUMBAI contracts are available for trading during which months?
   (a) January to April
   (b) June to September
   (c) October to December
   (d) Throughout the year

Answer: (b) June to September

6. Assertion (A): Weather derivatives like RAINMUMBAI can play a crucial role in managing monsoon-related risks in India.

Reason (R): They provide cash settlement based on objective IMD rainfall data, reducing delays in claim settlement.

Select the correct code:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

7. Which of the following is the regulator of NCDEX?
   (a) RBI
   (b) SEBI
   (c) Ministry of Agriculture
   (d) Ministry of Finance

Answer: (b) SEBI

1. “The launch of RAINMUMBAI reflects the growing need for innovative financial tools to tackle climate risks in India.” Discuss the potential benefits and challenges of weather derivatives in the Indian context. (15 Marks)
2. Examine the role of commodity exchanges like NCDEX in strengthening agricultural risk management in India. (10 Marks)

The 1,100 MW Velimalai Pumped Storage Hydroelectric Project in Kanniyakumari district, Tamil Nadu, has recently received Terms of Reference (ToR) clearance from the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).

This is a significant development as it is the first pumped storage project in Tamil Nadu to be developed under the Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model on a Build-Own-Operate-Transfer (BOOT) basis.

• Capacity: 1,100 MW
• Location: Vellimalai hills, Kanniyakumari district, Tamil Nadu
• Model: First project in Tamil Nadu under PPP mode (Build-Own-Operate-Transfer) as per Section 63 of the Electricity Act, 2003.
• Type: Closed-loop off-river pumped storage system (does not depend heavily on natural river flow).
• Objective: To strengthen peak power management, facilitate round-the-clock integration of renewable energy, and provide grid stability.

• Powerhouse: Underground powerhouse with four units of 275 MW each.
• Reservoirs: Two new off-river reservoirs will be constructed.
  • Upper Reservoir: Gross storage capacity of 4.39 million cubic metres.
  • Lower Reservoir: Gross storage capacity of 4.91 million cubic metres (located upstream of existing Mambazhathuraiyar dam).
• Pumping: Approximately 3.94 million cubic metres of water will be pumped to the upper reservoir in 6.94 hours during off-peak hours.
• Generation: Electricity generation for 6 hours daily during peak demand.
• Annual Energy Generation: Estimated at 2,080.55 million kWh.
• Special Feature: Closed-loop system with minimal dependence on natural water sources, making it more environmentally sustainable.

• Supports Tamil Nadu’s target of achieving renewable energy integration and grid stability.
• Helps in balancing the intermittent nature of solar and wind power.
• Promotes energy storage technology as part of India’s energy transition strategy.
• Creates employment opportunities and boosts infrastructure development in southern Tamil Nadu.
• Aligns with national goals under National Electricity Plan and Pumped Storage Projects promotion policy.

Prelims

• Key Terms: Pumped Storage Hydroelectric Project, Closed-loop off-river system, ToR Clearance, PPP-BOOT Model, Peak Power Management.

GS-3 (Economy & Infrastructure)

• Energy storage, Renewable energy integration, Pumped storage technology, Public-Private Partnership in power sector.

GS-3 (Environment & Ecology)

• Environmental clearance process, Sustainable energy projects, Impact of closed-loop systems on ecology.

Essay / Interview

• “Pumped Storage Projects are Critical for India’s Energy Transition and Grid Stability.”
• “Balancing Development and Environment: The Case of Pumped Storage Hydro Projects.”

1. With reference to the Velimalai Pumped Storage Hydro Electric Project, consider the following statements:

1. It is located in Kanniyakumari district of Tamil Nadu.
2. It is the first pumped storage project in Tamil Nadu to be developed under the PPP model.
3. It is an open-loop river-based project.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

2. The Velimalai Project is designed as a:
   (a) Run-of-the-river project
   (b) Closed-loop off-river pumped storage system
   (c) Tidal energy project
   (d) Floating solar project

Answer: (b) Closed-loop off-river pumped storage system

3. Consider the following statements:

1. The project has an installed capacity of 1,100 MW.
2. It will have an underground powerhouse with four units of 275 MW each.
3. It will generate electricity for 6 hours daily during peak demand.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

4. Pumped Storage Hydro Projects are primarily used for:
   (a) Base load power generation
   (b) Peak load management and renewable energy integration
   (c) Only irrigation purposes
   (d) Drinking water supply

Answer: (b) Peak load management and renewable energy integration

5. Which of the following ministries granted Terms of Reference (ToR) clearance to the Velimalai Project?
   (a) Ministry of Power
   (b) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
   (c) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
   (d) Ministry of Jal Shakti

Answer: (b) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

6. Assertion (A): Closed-loop off-river pumped storage projects have relatively lower environmental impact.

Reason (R): They do not depend heavily on perennial rivers and recirculate water between artificially created reservoirs.

Select the correct code:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

7. The Velimalai Project will use rainfall data and water from which of the following?
   (a) Periyar River
   (b) Artificially created reservoirs with minimal natural inflow
   (c) Cauvery River
   (d) Vaigai River

Answer: (b) Artificially created reservoirs with minimal natural inflow

1. “Pumped Storage Hydroelectric Projects are vital for India’s energy security in the era of high renewable energy penetration.” Discuss with suitable examples. (15 Marks)
2. Examine the environmental and economic significance of closed-loop pumped storage projects like Velimalai in the Indian context. (10 Marks)

Prime Minister Narendra Modi was recently conferred with the prestigious FAO Agricola Medal by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) of the United Nations. This is one of the highest honours given by the FAO, recognising exceptional leadership in food security, nutrition, and agricultural development.

• It is the highest honour conferred by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations.
• Awarded to distinguished individuals who have made outstanding contributions to global food security, improved nutrition, and agricultural development.
• The medal recognises exceptional leadership and tangible impact in transforming agriculture and rural development.

• Founded: 16 October 1945 in Quebec City, Canada.
• Headquarters: Rome, Italy.
• Status: Oldest permanent specialised agency of the United Nations.
• Mandate: To defeat hunger, improve nutrition, increase agricultural productivity, raise rural living standards, and contribute to global economic growth.
• Members: 195 members (194 countries + European Union). India is a founding member.
• Governance: Biennial FAO Conference and a 49-member Council.
• Major Functions:
  • Coordinates global efforts in agriculture, forestry, fisheries, and natural resources.
  • Provides technical knowledge and policy support.
  • Co-founder of the World Food Programme (WFP).
• Major Reports:
  • The State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World (SOFI)
  • The State of the World’s Forests (SOFO)
  • The State of World Fisheries and Aquaculture (SOFIA)
• World Food Day: Celebrated every year on 16 October.

• Recognises India’s achievements in food security, agricultural reforms, and initiatives like PM-KISAN, PM Fasal Bima Yojana, and digital agriculture.
• Highlights India’s global leadership in addressing hunger and promoting sustainable agriculture.
• Reinforces India’s commitment to Zero Hunger (SDG-2) and South-South Cooperation in agriculture.

Prelims

• Key Terms: Agricola Medal, FAO, SOFI, World Food Day, Founding Member.

GS-2 (International Relations)

• India-UN relations, Global food governance, South-South Cooperation.

GS-3 (Agriculture & Food Security)

• Food security initiatives, Sustainable agriculture, Role of international organisations.

Essay / Interview

• “Global Recognition of India’s Agricultural Transformation.”
• “From Food Scarcity to Food Surplus: India’s Journey in Food Security.”

1. With reference to the Agricola Medal, consider the following statements:

1. It is the highest honour conferred by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO).
2. It is awarded for exceptional contributions to global food security and agricultural development.
3. It is given only to heads of government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

2. The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) was founded in which year?
   (a) 1945
   (b) 1950
   (c) 1965
   (d) 1972

Answer: (a) 1945

3. Consider the following statements about FAO:

1. Its headquarters is in Rome, Italy.
2. India is a founding member of FAO.
3. It publishes the State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World (SOFI) report.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3

4. World Food Day is observed every year on:
   (a) 16 October
   (b) 5 June
   (c) 8 March
   (d) 1 December

Answer: (a) 16 October

5. Which of the following is not a major report published by FAO?
   (a) SOFI
   (b) SOFO
   (c) SOFIA
   (d) World Happiness Report

Answer: (d) World Happiness Report

6. The Agricola Medal is primarily given for contributions in the field of:
   (a) Climate change mitigation
   (b) Global food security and agricultural development
   (c) Nuclear disarmament
   (d) Space technology

Answer: (b) Global food security and agricultural development

7. Assertion (A): FAO plays a crucial role in achieving Sustainable Development Goal 2 (Zero Hunger).

Reason (R): It coordinates international efforts to defeat hunger and improve nutrition worldwide.

Select the correct code:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

8. Which of the following countries is a founding member of FAO?
   (a) India
   (b) China
   (c) Japan
   (d) South Korea

Answer: (a) India

1. “The conferment of the FAO Agricola Medal on the Prime Minister reflects global recognition of India’s agricultural transformation.” Discuss India’s achievements in food security and the role of FAO in global hunger eradication. (15 Marks)
2. Examine the mandate and significance of the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) in the context of global food security challenges. (10 Marks)

Recently, India’s Defence Minister held comprehensive bilateral discussions with the Minister of National Defence of South Korea in Seoul. The talks focused on enhancing defence cooperation, strategic partnership, joint military exercises, defence industry collaboration, and regional security issues in the Indo-Pacific.

This meeting reflects the growing strategic convergence between the two nations amid evolving geopolitical dynamics in East Asia.

• Official Name: Republic of Korea (ROK)
• Location: Occupies the southern half of the Korean Peninsula in East Asia.
• Border: Shares a heavily militarised land border with North Korea (Demilitarized Zone – DMZ).
• Maritime Boundaries:
  • East: East Sea (Sea of Japan)
  • South: East China Sea
  • West: Yellow Sea
• Separated from Japan by the Korea Strait (Tsushima Island lies to the southeast).
• Capital: Seoul (one of the most technologically advanced and densely populated cities in the world).

• Climate: Continental climate with hot and humid summers (monsoon rains) and cold, dry winters.
• Major Rivers: Han River (flows through Seoul), Nakdong River.
• Major Islands: Jeju Island (largest island, a popular tourist destination and UNESCO site).
• Mountainous Terrain: Dominated by the Taebaek Mountain Range along the eastern coast.
• Highest Peak: Mount Halla (1,950 metres) on Jeju Island – an extinct volcano.
• Natural Resources: Anthracite coal, iron ore, graphite, gold, silver, tungsten, lead, and zinc.
• Land Use: Highly urbanised with limited arable land; known for technological innovation and export-oriented economy.

• Both countries are key partners in the Indo-Pacific strategy.
• Strengthening cooperation in defence manufacturing, technology transfer, and maritime security.
• South Korea is a major player in global supply chains (semiconductors, shipbuilding, automobiles).
• The partnership complements India’s Act East Policy and South Korea’s New Southern Policy.
• Potential areas: Co-development of weapons, joint exercises, cyber security, and space cooperation.

Prelims

• Key Terms: Korean Peninsula, DMZ, Indo-Pacific Strategy, Taebaek Mountains, Mount Halla, New Southern Policy.

GS-2 (International Relations)

• Bilateral relations with East Asian countries, India’s Act East Policy, Quad+ partnerships, Strategic autonomy.

GS-1 (Geography)

• Physical geography of East Asia, Climate, Mountains, and Strategic location of Korean Peninsula.

Essay / Interview

• “Geopolitics of the Korean Peninsula and its Implications for India.”
• “Strengthening India-South Korea Strategic Partnership in the Indo-Pacific Era.”

1. With reference to South Korea, consider the following statements:

1. It occupies the southern half of the Korean Peninsula.
2. Seoul is its capital city.
3. Mount Halla is the highest peak located on Jeju Island.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

2. South Korea is separated from Japan by which of the following?
   (a) Tsushima Strait
   (b) Korea Strait
   (c) Yellow Sea
   (d) East China Sea

Answer: (b) Korea Strait

3. Consider the following statements:

1. South Korea shares a land border with North Korea.
2. The Taebaek Mountain range runs along its eastern coast.
3. Jeju Island is the largest island of South Korea.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3

4. Which of the following is the highest peak in South Korea?
   (a) Mount Fuji
   (b) Mount Halla
   (c) Mount Paektu
   (d) Mount Everest

Answer: (b) Mount Halla

5. The recent bilateral meeting between India and South Korea was held in:
   (a) New Delhi
   (b) Seoul
   (c) Tokyo
   (d) Pyongyang

Answer: (b) Seoul

6. Which of the following is not a major river of South Korea?
   (a) Han River
   (b) Nakdong River
   (c) Mekong River
   (d) Both (a) and (b) are major rivers

Answer: (c) Mekong River

7. Assertion (A): South Korea is an important strategic partner for India in the Indo-Pacific region.

Reason (R): Both countries share common concerns regarding maritime security and supply chain resilience.

Select the correct code:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

8. South Korea has a continental climate characterised by:
   (a) Hot rainy summers and cold winters
   (b) Mild summers and mild winters throughout the year
   (c) Hot desert climate
   (d) Equatorial climate

Answer: (a) Hot rainy summers and cold winters

1. “India-South Korea relations have evolved from economic partnership to strategic convergence.” Discuss the significance of this relationship in the context of the Indo-Pacific region. (15 Marks)
2. Examine the strategic importance of the Korean Peninsula in East Asian geopolitics and its implications for India’s foreign policy. (10 Marks)

India achieved a significant milestone in indigenous defence technology when Pune-based private firm Nibe Limited, in collaboration with Israel’s Elbit Systems, successfully tested the Suryastra Rocket System at the Integrated Test Range in Chandipur, Odisha.

This is India’s first indigenous universal multi-calibre rocket launcher system, marking a major step towards self-reliance in long-range precision strike capabilities.

• Full Name: Suryastra Rocket System
• Developed by: Nibe Limited (Pune) in collaboration with Elbit Systems, Israel
• Type: Advanced long-range, multi-calibre rocket launcher system
• Purpose: To deliver precision strikes on enemy positions, command centres, radar installations, and logistics hubs deep inside hostile territory.
• Base Technology: Based on Elbit Systems’ PULS (Precise & Universal Launching System) technology.

• Platform: Mounted on a highly mobile 6x6 Tatra truck.
• Multi-Calibre Capability: Uses interchangeable modular pods, allowing it to fire different types of munitions:
  • 122 mm rockets – for shorter ranges
  • 306 mm EXTRA missiles – range up to 150 km
  • 370 mm Predator Hawk missiles – range up to 300 km
  • SkyStriker Loitering Munitions (suicide drones) – range up to 100 km
• Precision: Circular Error Probable (CEP) of less than 5 metres.
• Multi-Target Engagement: Can engage multiple targets simultaneously at varying ranges.
• Fire Control System: Integrates GPS, inertial navigation, and digital ballistic computation.
• Tactical Advantage: “Shoot-and-Scoot” capability with semi-automated reload system, reducing vulnerability to counter-battery fire.

• Boosts Atmanirbhar Bharat in the defence sector.
• Enhances India’s long-range precision strike and artillery capabilities.
• Provides operational flexibility with multiple munitions on a single platform.
• Strengthens India’s deterrence posture along borders.
• Opens avenues for future exports of indigenous defence systems.

Prelims

• Key Terms: Suryastra Rocket System, Multi-Calibre Rocket Launcher, PULS Technology, Loitering Munitions, Shoot-and-Scoot, CEP.

GS-3 (Defence & Technology)

• Indigenous defence manufacturing, Defence modernisation, Private sector role in defence R&D.

GS-2 (International Relations)

• India-Israel defence cooperation.

Essay / Interview

• “Private Sector’s Growing Role in India’s Defence Self-Reliance.”
• “Precision Strike Technologies and the Future of Modern Warfare.”

1. With reference to the Suryastra Rocket System, consider the following statements:

1. It is India’s first indigenous universal multi-calibre rocket launcher system.
2. It has been developed by DRDO independently.
3. It is mounted on a 6×6 Tatra truck.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

2. The Suryastra Rocket System has been developed in collaboration with which country?
   (a) United States
   (b) Israel
   (c) Russia
   (d) France

Answer: (b) Israel

3. Consider the following statements:

1. Suryastra can fire 370 mm Predator Hawk missiles with a range of up to 300 km.
2. It can launch SkyStriker loitering munitions.
3. It uses a “Shoot-and-Scoot” capability to reduce vulnerability.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3

4. The term “Loitering Munitions” is best described as:
   (a) Conventional artillery shells
   (b) Suicide drones that can hover and strike targets
   (c) Anti-tank guided missiles only
   (d) Ballistic missiles with nuclear warheads

Answer: (b) Suicide drones that can hover and strike targets

5. Which of the following organisations successfully tested the Suryastra Rocket System?
   (a) Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
   (b) Nibe Limited
   (c) Bharat Electronics Limited
   (d) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited

Answer: (b) Nibe Limited

6. The Circular Error Probable (CEP) of Suryastra Rocket System is:
   (a) Less than 5 metres
   (b) Less than 50 metres
   (c) More than 100 metres
   (d) More than 500 metres

Answer: (a) Less than 5 metres

7. Assertion (A): Suryastra is a significant step towards Atmanirbhar Bharat in defence.

Reason (R): It is India’s first indigenous multi-calibre rocket launcher developed by a private company.

Select the correct code:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

8. The Suryastra system is primarily designed for:
   (a) Short-range air defence
   (b) Long-range precision strikes on ground targets
   (c) Anti-submarine warfare
   (d) Cyber defence operations

Answer: (b) Long-range precision strikes on ground targets

1. “The development of systems like Suryastra highlights the growing role of the private sector in India’s defence indigenisation.” Discuss the significance of such public-private partnerships in strengthening national security. (15 Marks)
2. Examine how multi-calibre rocket systems and loitering munitions are changing the nature of modern warfare. (10 Marks)

Pulicat Lake, one of India’s most important coastal wetlands, has recently attracted large numbers of birders and photographers from across South India, especially to witness the spectacular flocks of Greater Flamingos in its shallow waters. The lake continues to be a vital wintering ground for migratory birds.

• Type: Vast coastal shallow brackish water lagoon.
• Location: Lies along the coast of the Bay of Bengal, spread across Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
• Significance: It is the second largest brackish water lagoon in India after Chilika Lake (Odisha).
• Separation: It is separated from the Bay of Bengal by the Sriharikota Island (home to ISRO’s Satish Dhawan Space Centre).
• Major Inflows:
  • Arani River (at the southern tip)
  • Kalangi River (from the northwest)
• Other Feature: The Buckingham Canal (a navigation channel) passes through the lagoon.
• Ramsar Status: Designated as a Ramsar Site (Wetland of International Importance) in 2002.

• Ecotone: Unique transition zone between terrestrial and marine ecosystems.
• Flora: Supports around 132 plant species, including Walsura piscida, Manilkara elengi, Excoecaria agallocha, Spinifex littoreus, etc.
• Fauna:
  • Rich aquatic life: Mudskippers, seagrass beds, oyster reefs, crabs, and fish.
  • Avian Diversity: More than 200 bird species.
  • Famous for large flocks of Greater Flamingos.
  • Other important birds: Eurasian Curlews, Oystercatchers, Bar-tailed Godwits, Sand Plovers, etc.

• Critical habitat for migratory birds on the Central Asian Flyway.
• Supports local fishing communities and biodiversity conservation.
• Acts as a natural buffer against cyclones and coastal erosion.
• Important site for eco-tourism and environmental education.
• Faces threats from pollution, encroachment, and climate change-induced sea-level rise.

Prelims

• Key Terms: Pulicat Lake, Ramsar Site, Brackish Water Lagoon, Sriharikota Island, Greater Flamingo.

GS-1 (Geography)

• Wetlands, Coastal ecosystems, Ramsar Convention.

GS-3 (Environment & Ecology)

• Biodiversity conservation, Ramsar wetlands, Migratory bird habitats, Coastal ecosystem protection.

Essay / Interview

• “Wetlands are the Kidneys of the Earth: Conservation Challenges in India.”
• “Role of Coastal Lagoons in Biodiversity and Climate Resilience.”

1. With reference to Pulicat Lake, consider the following statements:

1. It is the second largest brackish water lagoon in India after Chilika Lake.
2. It lies entirely within Tamil Nadu.
3. It was designated as a Ramsar Site in 2002.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 only

2. Pulicat Lake is separated from the Bay of Bengal by which of the following?
   (a) Sriharikota Island
   (b) Coromandel Coast
   (c) Palk Strait
   (d) Godavari Delta

Answer: (a) Sriharikota Island

3. Consider the following statements:

1. Pulicat Lake is fed by the Arani and Kalangi rivers.
2. It is famous for large flocks of Greater Flamingos.
3. The Buckingham Canal passes through the lagoon.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3

4. Pulicat Lake is an important habitat for birds belonging to which flyway?
   (a) Pacific Flyway
   (b) Central Asian Flyway
   (c) East Asian–Australasian Flyway
   (d) Americas Flyway

Answer: (b) Central Asian Flyway

5. Which of the following is the largest brackish water lagoon in India?
   (a) Pulicat Lake
   (b) Chilika Lake
   (c) Vembanad Lake
   (d) Loktak Lake

Answer: (b) Chilika Lake

6. Assertion (A): Pulicat Lake is an important Ramsar Site.
   Reason (R): It supports rich biodiversity including migratory birds and acts as a coastal buffer zone.

Select the correct code:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (d) A is false but R is true

7. Which of the following species is famously associated with Pulicat Lake?
   (a) Olive Ridley Turtle
   (b) Greater Flamingo
   (c) Gangetic Dolphin
   (d) Asiatic Lion

Answer: (b) Greater Flamingo

8. Pulicat Lake is located along the coast of:
   (a) Arabian Sea
   (b) Bay of Bengal
   (c) Indian Ocean
   (d) Andaman Sea

Answer: (b) Bay of Bengal

1. “Coastal wetlands like Pulicat Lake are vital for ecological balance but face multiple anthropogenic threats.” Discuss the importance of such wetlands and measures needed for their conservation. (15 Marks)
2. Examine the role of Ramsar Sites in biodiversity conservation with special reference to Pulicat Lake. (10 Marks)

The 68th Session of the Asian Productivity Organization (APO) Governing Body is being hosted by the Government of India in New Delhi. This meeting brings together representatives from 21 member economies to discuss strategies for enhancing productivity, sustainable development, and economic cooperation in the Asia-Pacific region.

• Established: 1961
• Type: Intergovernmental organization
• Objective: To enhance productivity for sustainable socio-economic development through mutual cooperation, knowledge sharing, and capacity building among member countries.
• Membership: Open to countries in Asia and the Pacific that are members of UN ESCAP (United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific).
• Total Members: 21 member economies
• Founding Member: India

List of Members: Bangladesh, Cambodia, Republic of China (Taiwan), Fiji, Hong Kong, India, Indonesia, Iran, Japan, Republic of Korea, Lao PDR, Malaysia, Mongolia, Nepal, Pakistan, Philippines, Singapore, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Türkiye, and Vietnam.

• Headquarters: Tokyo, Japan
• National Productivity Organizations (NPOs): Each member country designates an NPO. In India, it is the National Productivity Council (NPC) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
• Governing Body: Highest decision-making body that meets annually to set strategic direction and approve major initiatives.
• Secretariat: Headed by a Secretary-General, responsible for day-to-day operations and implementation of programs.
• Focus Areas: Productivity improvement in industry, agriculture, services, public sector, digital transformation, green productivity, and innovation.

• Promotes South-South and triangular cooperation in the Asia-Pacific region.
• Supports India’s goal of becoming a developed nation (Viksit Bharat) through productivity enhancement.
• Plays a crucial role in capacity building, policy formulation, and adoption of best practices in productivity tools and technologies.
• Aligns with global agendas such as Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

Prelims

• Key Terms: APO, National Productivity Council (NPC), UN ESCAP, Governing Body, Green Productivity.

GS-2 (International Relations)

• India’s multilateral engagements in Asia-Pacific, Economic diplomacy, Regional organisations.

GS-3 (Economy)

• Productivity, Economic growth drivers, Industrial and agricultural productivity, Atmanirbhar Bharat.

Essay / Interview

• “Productivity is the Key to Sustainable Development in the 21st Century.”
• “Role of Regional Organisations like APO in India’s Economic Transformation.”

1. With reference to the Asian Productivity Organization (APO), consider the following statements:

1. It is an intergovernmental organization established in 1961.
2. India is a founding member of APO.
3. Its headquarters is located in Tokyo, Japan.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

2. The National Productivity Council (NPC) is the designated National Productivity Organization (NPO) for which country?
   (a) Japan
   (b) India
   (c) South Korea
   (d) Singapore

Answer: (b) India

3. Consider the following statements:

1. APO membership is open to countries that are members of UN ESCAP.
2. The Governing Body is the highest decision-making authority of APO.
3. APO currently has 21 member economies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3

4. The 68th Session of the APO Governing Body was recently hosted by:
   (a) Japan
   (b) India
   (c) South Korea
   (d) Singapore

Answer: (b) India

5. Which of the following is not a member of the Asian Productivity Organization?
   (a) India
   (b) Nepal
   (c) China (Mainland)
   (d) Vietnam

Answer: (c) China (Mainland)

6. The primary objective of APO is to:
   (a) Promote military cooperation
   (b) Enhance productivity for sustainable socio-economic development
   (c) Regulate international trade tariffs
   (d) Manage climate change negotiations

Answer: (b) Enhance productivity for sustainable socio-economic development

7. Assertion (A): APO plays an important role in India’s productivity enhancement efforts.
   Reason (R): India’s National Productivity Council works in coordination with APO for knowledge sharing and capacity building.

Select the correct code:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

8. The APO Governing Body meets:
   (a) Every month
   (b) Annually
   (c) Once in five years
   (d) Bi-monthly

Answer: (b) Annually

1. “Enhancing productivity is central to India’s goal of becoming a developed economy by 2047.” Discuss the role of organisations like the Asian Productivity Organization (APO) in achieving this vision. (15 Marks)
2. Examine the significance of regional organisations like APO in promoting economic cooperation and sustainable development in the Asia-Pacific region. (10 Marks)

Cuttack’s centuries-old Rupa Tarakasi (silver filigree) industry is facing severe challenges due to soaring silver prices and fresh government import curbs on silver. This traditional craft, a pride of Odisha, is struggling to sustain its livelihood and heritage.

• Rupa Tarakasi is one of the most exquisite and intricate forms of silver filigree craftsmanship.
• It is practised in the Silver City of Cuttack, Odisha.
• In Odia language: “Tara” means wire and “Kasi” means to design.
• It involves transforming silver into delicate wires and foils to create intricate jewellery, artefacts, and showpieces.

• Origin: The art form dates back to at least the 12th century.
• Patronage: Received significant support during the Mughal period. Over centuries, it evolved under different rulers (including British period).
• Process:
  • Silver bricks are drawn into extremely thin wires or foils.
  • These wires are twisted, bent, and soldered to create delicate patterns.
  • Craftsmen also use alloys with copper, zinc, cadmium, and tin.
• Artists: Locally known as “Rupa Banias” or “Roupyakaras”.
• Products: Jewellery (especially for Odissi dancers), decorative artefacts, religious idols, cultural pieces, and showpieces.
• GI Tag: Received Geographical Indication (GI) Tag in 2024.

• Represents Odisha’s rich cultural and artisanal heritage.
• Provides livelihood to thousands of skilled artisans in Cuttack.
• Promotes GI-tagged handicrafts and supports the ‘Vocal for Local’ campaign.
• Faces threats from rising raw material costs, cheap imports, and lack of modern marketing support.

Prelims

• Key Terms: Rupa Tarakasi, Silver Filigree, GI Tag, Cuttack, Odisha Handicrafts.

GS-1 (Indian Culture & Heritage)

• Traditional crafts, Handicraft sector, GI-tagged products.

GS-3 (Economy)

• Challenges faced by MSME and traditional industries, Artisanal economy, Impact of raw material price rise.

Essay / Interview

• “Preserving Traditional Crafts in the Age of Globalisation.”
• “GI Tags: Protecting India’s Cultural and Economic Heritage.”

1. With reference to Rupa Tarakasi, consider the following statements:

1. It is a traditional silver filigree craft practised in Cuttack, Odisha.
2. “Tara” in Odia means wire and “Kasi” means to design.
3. It received a Geographical Indication (GI) tag in 2024.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

2. Rupa Tarakasi is primarily associated with which metal?
   (a) Gold
   (b) Silver
   (c) Copper
   (d) Brass

Answer: (b) Silver

3. Consider the following statements:

1. Rupa Tarakasi craft dates back to at least the 12th century.
2. It received significant patronage during the Mughal period.
3. The artists involved are known as “Rupa Banias” or “Roupyakaras”.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3

4. Which of the following cities is known as the ‘Silver City’ of India due to Rupa Tarakasi?
   (a) Jaipur
   (b) Cuttack
   (c) Varanasi
   (d) Hyderabad

Answer: (b) Cuttack

5. Rupa Tarakasi products are especially used by performers of which classical dance form?
   (a) Bharatanatyam
   (b) Kathak
   (c) Odissi
   (d) Kuchipudi

Answer: (c) Odissi

6. The recent crisis in the Rupa Tarakasi industry is mainly due to:
   (a) Lack of skilled artisans
   (b) Soaring silver prices and import restrictions
   (c) Ban on silver jewellery
   (d) Competition from machine-made products only

Answer: (b) Soaring silver prices and import restrictions

7. Assertion (A): Rupa Tarakasi is an important part of Odisha’s cultural heritage.
   Reason (R): It is a GI-tagged product that provides livelihood to thousands of artisans.

Select the correct code:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

8. In which state is Pulicat Lake located that is often compared in context of Odisha’s coastal heritage?
   (a) Odisha
   (b) Andhra Pradesh & Tamil Nadu
   (c) West Bengal
   (d) Kerala

Answer: (b) Andhra Pradesh & Tamil Nadu

1. “Traditional handicrafts like Rupa Tarakasi are an integral part of India’s cultural identity but face existential threats.” Discuss the challenges and suggest measures for their preservation and promotion. (15 Marks)
2. Examine the role of Geographical Indication (GI) tags in protecting and promoting traditional Indian crafts with special reference to Rupa Tarakasi. (10 Marks)

Warmer nights are emerging as a serious and often overlooked public health threat during Indian summers. Night-time temperatures are rising faster than daytime temperatures, preventing the human body from recovering from daytime heat stress. This is particularly dangerous for people living in low- and middle-income housing with poor ventilation.

• Warm nights occur when the minimum temperature remains persistently high, usually above 25°C, and often crossing 28–30°C or even 32–35°C in cities.
• Unlike daytime heatwaves, warm nights do not allow the body to cool down, leading to continuous physiological stress and cumulative heat exposure.
• A recent Climate Trends study in Chennai revealed many households experiencing indoor night-time temperatures above 32°C, sometimes reaching 35°C.

• Rising Trend: Night-time temperatures in India are increasing faster than daytime temperatures. By the end of the century, coldest night temperatures may rise by 5.5°C compared to 4.7°C for the warmest days.
• Urban Heat Island Effect: Concrete structures, roads, buildings, and loss of green cover absorb heat during the day and release it at night, making cities 4–6°C warmer at night.
• High Humidity: Reduces the body’s ability to cool through sweat evaporation.
• Vulnerable Groups: Elderly, children, outdoor workers, and residents in poorly ventilated homes are at highest risk.

• Warm nights contribute more to heat-related mortality than extreme daytime heat.
• They cause sleep disruption, cardiovascular strain, fatigue, reduced productivity, and increased health risks.
• Current Heat Action Plans focus mainly on daytime heatwaves and are inadequate for addressing continuous night-time heat stress.
• Highlights the need for long-term urban planning, passive cooling solutions, and climate-resilient infrastructure.

Prelims

• Key Terms: Warm Nights, Urban Heat Island Effect, Cumulative Heat Stress, Minimum Temperature, Passive Cooling.

GS-1 (Geography)

• Climate change impacts, Urban climatology.

GS-2 (Governance)

• Public health challenges, Heat Action Plans.

GS-3 (Environment & Disaster Management)

• Climate change adaptation, Health impacts of global warming, Urban heat management.

Essay / Interview

• “Warm Nights: The Invisible Face of India’s Climate and Health Crisis.”
• “Urban Heat Stress and the Need for Climate-Resilient Cities in India.”

1. With reference to “Warm Nights”, consider the following statements:

1. They occur when night-time minimum temperature remains above 25°C.
2. They cause more cumulative heat stress on the human body than hot days.
3. Urban Heat Island effect is a major contributor to warm nights.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

2. Warm Nights pose the greatest health risk to which of the following?
   (a) People living in air-conditioned houses
   (b) Residents in poorly ventilated low-income housing
   (c) Rural farmers only
   (d) High-altitude regions

Answer: (b) Residents in poorly ventilated low-income housing

3. Consider the following statements:

1. Night-time temperatures in India are rising faster than daytime temperatures.
2. Warm nights disrupt sleep and increase cardiovascular strain.
3. Current Heat Action Plans adequately address the issue of warm nights.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

4. Which of the following is a major cause of rising warm nights in Indian cities?
   (a) Urban Heat Island Effect
   (b) Excessive rainfall
   (c) High wind speed
   (d) Cloud cover

Answer: (a) Urban Heat Island Effect

5. According to studies, when night-time temperatures cross 30°C, there is:
   (a) No change in mortality
   (b) Significant increase in daily deaths
   (c) Decrease in heat-related illnesses
   (d) Better sleep quality

Answer: (b) Significant increase in daily deaths

6. The recent Climate Trends study mentioned in the context of warm nights was conducted in:
   (a) Delhi
   (b) Chennai
   (c) Mumbai
   (d) Kolkata

Answer: (a) Delhi

7. Assertion (A): Warm nights are a more dangerous public health threat than daytime heatwaves.
   Reason (R): They prevent the human body from recovering from daytime heat stress.

Select the correct code:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

8. Which of the following is not a suggested solution for mitigating warm nights?
   (a) Reflective roof coatings
   (b) Increased green cover
   (c) Banning air conditioners
   (d) Improved natural ventilation

Answer: (c) Banning air conditioners

1. “While daytime heatwaves dominate public discourse, warm nights are emerging as a silent but deadlier public health crisis in urban India.” Discuss the causes, impacts, and required policy responses. (15 Marks)
2. Examine the limitations of existing Heat Action Plans in addressing the challenge of rising night-time temperatures and suggest long-term structural measures. (10 Marks)