Why in News?

• In a major escalation of the ongoing US–Israel–Iran conflict, Iran has fired Qader cruise missiles at the USS Abraham Lincoln aircraft carrier in the Arabian Sea.
• The attack marks a significant expansion of Iran’s retaliatory actions beyond the Persian Gulf, targeting a high-value US naval asset.
• The incident has heightened concerns over maritime security in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR), risks to critical sea lanes, and potential disruption to global energy and trade flows.

Key Details of the Incident

• Target
  • USS Abraham Lincoln, one of the US Navy’s Nimitz-class aircraft carriers.
• Weapon Used
  • Qader medium-range shore-based anti-ship cruise missile developed by Iran.
• Strategic Significance
  • Demonstrates Iran’s capability to project power beyond the Strait of Hormuz using anti-ship missiles.
  • Signals willingness to directly challenge US naval presence in support of its regional operations.

About the Qader Cruise Missile

• Type
  • Medium-range shore-based anti-ship cruise missile.
  • Upgraded version of the Noor missile (Iranian version of the Chinese C-802).
• Key Features
  • Range: 120–300 km.
  • Warhead: Approximately 200 kg of high explosive.
  • Propulsion: Turbojet engine.
  • Flight Profile: Low-altitude sea-skimming to evade radar detection, flying only a few metres above the sea surface to reduce reaction time for defence systems.
• Purpose
  • Designed to target warships, tankers, and other sea-based assets.

What are Cruise Missiles?

• Definition
  • Guided missiles that fly at low altitudes, often following the contours of the terrain or sea surface to avoid radar detection.
• Key Characteristics
  • Powered by jet engines.
  • Can manoeuvre around obstacles.
  • Guidance: GPS, terrain contour matching, inertial navigation.
  • Speed: Subsonic to supersonic (Mach 0.8–3).
  • Range: Short to medium (50–2,500 km).
  • Launch Platforms: Air, sea, and land.
• Indian Examples
  • BrahMos (supersonic, joint India-Russia).
  • Nirbhay (subsonic, indigenous).

Implications

• Maritime Security
  • Raises risks to naval assets and commercial shipping in the Indian Ocean Region.
  • Increases insurance premiums and shipping costs.
• For India
  • Direct implication for maritime security along key sea lanes of communication (SLOCs).
  • Potential disruption to energy imports (India imports a significant portion of its oil from the Gulf).
  • Reinforces the need for enhanced naval presence, anti-ship missile capabilities, and maritime domain awareness.
• Global Energy & Trade
  • Any prolonged disruption in the Arabian Sea could affect global oil and LNG flows.

Prelims

• Key terms: Qader Cruise Missile, Sea-Skimming, Anti-Ship Missile, USS Abraham Lincoln, Cruise Missile
• Data: Range 120–300 km, Warhead ~200 kg, Turbojet propulsion
• Related: BrahMos, Nirbhay, West Asia Conflict 2026, Maritime Security

GS-3 (Internal Security & Defence)

• Anti-ship missiles and naval warfare
• Maritime domain awareness and threats to SLOCs

GS-2 (IR)

• India’s strategic interests in the Indian Ocean and West Asia
• Impact of regional conflicts on global energy security

Essay / Interview

• “Cruise Missiles and the Changing Nature of Maritime Warfare in the Indian Ocean”
• “From Hormuz to the Arabian Sea: The Expanding Theatre of Conflict and India’s Maritime Security Challenges”

1. With reference to the Qader cruise missile, consider the following statements:
2. It is a medium-range shore-based anti-ship cruise missile developed by Iran.
3. It is an upgraded version of the Noor missile.
4. It uses a sea-skimming flight path to evade radar detection.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

2. The Qader missile has a reported range of:

(a) 50–100 km

(b) 120–300 km

(c) 500–800 km

(d) 1,000–1,500 km

Answer: (b)

3. Which of the following is a key characteristic of cruise missiles?

(a) Ballistic trajectory

(b) Low-altitude flight with terrain-following capability

(c) Intercontinental range only

(d) Nuclear warhead only

Answer: (b)

4. The term “sea-skimming” refers to:

(a) Flying at extremely low altitude over the sea surface

(b) Submarine-launched missiles

(c) High-altitude cruise

(d) Satellite-guided bombs

Answer: (a)

1. “The use of anti-ship cruise missiles like the Qader in the ongoing West Asia conflict highlights the evolving nature of maritime warfare.” Discuss the strategic implications for the Indian Ocean Region and India’s maritime security. (15 marks / 250 words)
2. Examine the key features of modern cruise missiles and their growing relevance in asymmetric naval conflicts. (10 marks / 150 words)
3. “Regional conflicts in West Asia are increasingly affecting critical sea lanes in the Indian Ocean.” Analyse this statement with reference to the recent Iranian attack on the USS Abraham Lincoln. (15 marks / 250 words)
4. Essay (250 marks) “Cruise Missiles and the Changing Dynamics of Maritime Power Projection in the 21st Century.”

Why in News?

• The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) has projected India’s economy to grow at 6.1% in 2026-27. This forecast comes in the backdrop of global economic uncertainties caused by geopolitical tensions, trade disruptions, and varying recovery rates across major economies.
• India’s projected growth rate remains one of the highest among major economies, reflecting the resilience of its domestic demand, services sector, and ongoing structural reforms.

Key Highlights of OECD’s Projection

• Growth Forecast
  • India’s GDP growth for 2026-27: 6.1%.
  • This places India among the fastest-growing major economies globally.
• Context
  • The projection underscores India’s continued strong performance despite global headwinds.
  • Key drivers include robust domestic consumption, public investment, and improving private investment sentiment.

About the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)

• Establishment
  • Founded on 14 December 1960 by 18 European countries, the United States, and Canada.
  • Originally the Organisation for European Economic Co-operation (OEEC), it was restructured to promote global economic cooperation.
• Membership
  • Currently has 38 member countries, mostly high-income democratic nations with market-based economies.
• Objectives
  • To shape policies that foster prosperity, equality, opportunity, and well-being for all.
  • To promote sustainable economic growth, stability, and improved living standards.
• Key Functions
  • Publishes comprehensive economic reports, statistical databases, analyses, and global economic outlooks.
  • Works to eliminate bribery, corruption, and other financial crimes.
  • Maintains a “black list” of uncooperative tax havens.
  • Provides policy recommendations on trade, taxation, education, environment, and governance.
• India’s Engagement
  • India is a Key Partner of the OECD since 2007 (along with Brazil, China, Indonesia, and South Africa).
  • Not a full member but collaborates closely on various economic and policy issues.
• Headquarters
  • Paris, France.

Significance of OECD’s Projection for India

• Global Perception
  • Reinforces India’s position as a bright spot in the global economy.
  • Enhances investor confidence and supports India’s narrative as a stable, high-growth emerging market.
• Policy Implications
  • Validates the effectiveness of ongoing reforms in fiscal management, infrastructure, and ease of doing business.
  • Highlights the need to sustain momentum in manufacturing, exports, and employment generation.
• Challenges Ahead
  • Global uncertainties (geopolitical tensions, trade fragmentation, and commodity price volatility) could still impact growth.
  • Domestic challenges include inflation management, employment generation, and addressing regional disparities.

Prelims

• Key terms: OECD, Key Partner, Black List of Tax Havens, Economic Outlook
• Data: India’s projected growth 6.1% in 2026-27; OECD established 1960; Headquarters – Paris
• Related: G20, BRICS, Global Economic Governance

GS-2 (IR)

• India’s engagement with multilateral economic organisations
• Global economic outlook and India’s position

GS-3 (Economy)

• Economic growth projections and structural reforms
• India’s macroeconomic performance

Essay / Interview

• “India as a Bright Spot in Global Economy: Opportunities and Challenges Ahead”
• “Multilateral Economic Institutions and India’s Rising Global Economic Profile”

1. With reference to the OECD’s latest economic projection, consider the following statements:
2. India’s economy is projected to grow at 6.1% in 2026-27.
3. The OECD was established in 1960 and has 38 member countries.
4. India is a full member of the OECD.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

2. The OECD maintains a “black list” related to:

(a) Climate change defaulters

(b) Uncooperative tax havens

(c) Countries violating human rights

(d) Nations with high debt levels

Answer: (b)

3. Which of the following is NOT a primary objective of the OECD?

(a) Promoting sustainable economic growth

(b) Fostering equality and well-being

(c) Regulating global military alliances

(d) Eliminating bribery and financial crime

Answer: (c)

4. Since when has India been an OECD Key Partner?

(a) 1995

(b) 2007

(c) 2014

(d) 2020

Answer: (b)

1. “The OECD’s projection of 6.1% growth for India in 2026-27 underscores the country’s economic resilience amid global uncertainties.” Discuss the key drivers of India’s growth and the challenges that need to be addressed to sustain it. (15 marks / 250 words)
2. Examine the role of the OECD in global economic governance and the significance of India’s partnership with the organisation. (10 marks / 150 words)
3. “Strong economic growth must be accompanied by inclusive and sustainable development.” Analyse this statement in the context of India’s growth trajectory as projected by the OECD. (15 marks / 250 words)
4. Essay (250 marks) “India in the Global Economy: Opportunities, Challenges and the Road to Viksit Bharat.”

Why in News?

• Researchers from the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) have discovered a new species of cockroach named Neoloboptera peninsularis from the Deccan Peninsula in Pune, Maharashtra. The insect was found among palm shrubs and dry leaf litter near farmland in Nathachiwadi.
• This discovery is significant as it marks the first use of modern DNA technology in India for identifying a cockroach species. It is only the third known member of the genus Neoloboptera recorded from India, after Neoloboptera indica (1865) and Neoloboptera chakrabortyi (1995).

Key Features of Neoloboptera peninsularis

• Physical Characteristics
  • Glossy, yellowish-brown body with fully developed wings.
  • Asymmetrical cerci (paired appendages at the rear).
  • Distinctive whip-like male genital component (a key taxonomic feature).
• Habitat
  • Found in dry leaf litter and palm shrubs near farmland.
  • Name “peninsularis” refers to its native region in Peninsular India.
• Taxonomic Significance
  • Adds to the limited records of the genus Neoloboptera in India.
  • Demonstrates the continued undiscovered biodiversity even in relatively accessible regions.

Significance of the Discovery

• Scientific
  • Highlights the importance of modern DNA barcoding in precise species identification.
  • Contributes to the documentation of India’s insect biodiversity, which remains vastly under-explored.
• Biodiversity Conservation
  • Reinforces the ecological value of even small habitats like leaf litter and shrub areas.
  • Underscores the need for continued faunal surveys in the Deccan Peninsula and Western Ghats region.
• For India
  • Strengthens ZSI’s role in systematic zoological research and biodiversity cataloguing.
  • Supports India’s commitments under the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).

Prelims

• Key terms: Neoloboptera peninsularis, Zoological Survey of India (ZSI), DNA Barcoding, Deccan Peninsula
• Data: Discovered in Pune, Maharashtra; Third species of genus Neoloboptera in India
• Related: Biodiversity Hotspots, Western Ghats, Insect Taxonomy

GS-3 (Environment & Biodiversity)

• Discovery of new species and the importance of taxonomic research
• Conservation of insect biodiversity and micro-habitats

GS-1 (Geography)

• Biodiversity of the Deccan Peninsula and Western Ghats

Essay / Interview

• “Documenting the Undiscovered: The Role of Taxonomic Research in Biodiversity Conservation”
• “Small Creatures, Big Impact: Why Insect Biodiversity Matters for Ecosystem Health”

1. With reference to the newly discovered cockroach species Neoloboptera peninsularis, consider the following statements:
2. It was discovered by researchers from the Zoological Survey of India in Pune, Maharashtra.
3. It is the third known member of the genus Neoloboptera recorded from India.
4. The discovery marks the first use of modern DNA technology for identifying a cockroach species in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

2. The Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) functions under which ministry?

(a) Ministry of Science and Technology

(b) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

(c) Ministry of Earth Sciences

(d) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare

Answer: (b)

3. Which of the following is a key identifying feature of Neoloboptera peninsularis?

(a) Bright red colour

(b) Asymmetrical cerci and distinctive male genital structure

(c) Large wings for long-distance flight

(d) Ability to glow in the dark

Answer: (b)

4. The name “peninsularis” in Neoloboptera peninsularis refers to:

(a) Its peninsular shape

(b) Its native region in Peninsular India

(c) Its discovery during a peninsula expedition

(d) Its habitat in coastal peninsulas

Answer: (b)

1. “The discovery of new species like Neoloboptera peninsularis highlights the continued undiscovered biodiversity in India even in relatively accessible regions.” Discuss the importance of taxonomic research and the role of institutions like ZSI in biodiversity documentation. (15 marks / 250 words)
2. Examine the significance of insect biodiversity and why micro-habitats such as leaf litter and shrub areas need protection. (10 marks / 150 words)
3. “Modern DNA technology is revolutionising species identification and conservation efforts.” Analyse this statement with reference to the recent discovery of Neoloboptera peninsularis. (15 marks / 250 words)
4. Essay (250 marks) “Hidden Biodiversity: The Need for Systematic Exploration and Conservation of India’s Insect Fauna.”

Why in News?

• The Indian Army has started inducting Shaurya Squadrons — dedicated drone sub-units — into its armoured regiments.
• These squadrons are designed to provide tank commanders with real-time surveillance and precision-strike capabilities at the unit level, significantly enhancing combat effectiveness on the modern battlefield.
• The move is part of the Army’s broader strategy to integrate unmanned systems and compress the sensor-to-shooter cycle from minutes to seconds. Five Army commands have already received these units, with plans to equip all 67 armoured regiments with a dedicated drone wing.

Key Features of Shaurya Squadrons

• Structure
  • Each squadron consists of 20 to 30 personnel specially trained in drone and counter-drone operations.
• Equipment
  • Operates a mix of:
    • Surveillance drones
    • Attack drones
    • Swarm drones
    • First-Person View (FPV) drones
    • Loitering munitions
• Operational Role
  • FPV drones can directly strike enemy armour and logistics nodes.
  • Allows commanders to act independently without routing requests up the chain of command.
  • Compresses the sensor-to-shooter cycle, enabling faster detection and engagement of targets.
• Link with Earlier Initiatives
  • Draws from the earlier Ashni Platoons (25–30 personnel) already integrated into infantry battalions.
  • Ashni units also use a similar mix of surveillance, attack, and loitering munitions and are now standard in all infantry battalions.

Significance of the Development

• For Modern Warfare
  • Represents a major shift towards integrating unmanned aerial systems (UAS) into armoured formations.
  • Enhances situational awareness, precision targeting, and force protection in high-intensity conflicts.
• For Indian Army
  • Strengthens the Army’s drone warfare capabilities across both armoured and infantry units.
  • Supports the broader push for Atmanirbhar Bharat in defence technology and indigenous drone development.
• Strategic Impact
  • Improves operational tempo and decision-making at the tactical level.
  • Enhances deterrence along sensitive borders by providing rapid response options.

Prelims

• Key terms: Shaurya Squadrons, Sensor-to-Shooter Cycle, FPV Drones, Loitering Munitions, Ashni Platoons
• Data: 20–30 personnel per squadron; Plans to equip all 67 armoured regiments
• Related: Drone Warfare, Atmanirbhar Bharat in Defence, Modernisation of Indian Army

GS-3 (Internal Security & Defence)

• Military modernisation and integration of unmanned systems
• Evolution of warfare tactics in the Indian context

GS-3 (Science & Technology)

• Indigenous development and deployment of drone technology in defence

Essay / Interview

• “Drone Warfare and the Future of Armoured Operations: The Role of Shaurya Squadrons”
• “From Infantry to Armour: How the Indian Army is Integrating Unmanned Systems for Multi-Domain Operations”

1. With reference to Shaurya Squadrons, consider the following statements:
2. They are dedicated drone sub-units being inducted into Indian Army’s armoured regiments.
3. Each squadron comprises 20 to 30 personnel trained in drone and counter-drone operations.
4. They operate FPV drones, swarm drones, and loitering munitions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

2. The primary objective of Shaurya Squadrons is to:

(a) Provide air defence cover

(b) Compress the sensor-to-shooter cycle at the unit level

(c) Replace traditional artillery units

(d) Conduct long-range strategic strikes

Answer: (b)

3. Shaurya Squadrons draw operational experience from which earlier Army initiative?

(a) Agni Platoons

(b) Ashni Platoons

(c) Tejas Squadrons

(d) Vajra Battalions

Answer: (b)

4. Which of the following is NOT typically operated by Shaurya Squadrons?

(a) Surveillance drones

(b) FPV attack drones

(c) Swarm drones

(d) Manned fighter aircraft

Answer: (d)

1. “The induction of Shaurya Squadrons marks a significant shift in the Indian Army’s approach to modern warfare.” Discuss the role of drone technology in enhancing armoured operations and its broader implications for India’s defence preparedness. (15 marks / 250 words)
2. Examine how the integration of unmanned systems like Shaurya Squadrons and Ashni Platoons is transforming the tactical-level capabilities of the Indian Army. (10 marks / 150 words)
3. “Future wars will be increasingly defined by speed, precision, and technology.” Analyse this statement in the context of the Indian Army’s drone induction initiatives. (15 marks / 250 words)
4. Essay (250 marks) “Drones on the Battlefield: Revolutionising Warfare and India’s Defence Modernisation Strategy.”

Why in News?

• In a landmark verdict, a U.S. jury in Los Angeles found Meta (owner of Facebook and Instagram) and YouTube guilty of designing addictive platforms that harmed a young user.
• The companies were held negligent and accused of malice and fraud, with damages of $6 million awarded — Meta liable for 70% and YouTube for 30%. The case is significant because it treats social media platforms as products, holding them accountable for harmful design features rather than shielding them under Section 230 of the U.S. Communications Decency Act.
• A parallel verdict in New Mexico also found Meta liable under consumer protection laws for misleading users about platform safety, awarding $375 million in damages. Together, these rulings signal a major shift in legal accountability for social media companies regarding youth mental health and addiction.

Key Details of the Case

• Plaintiff’s Argument
  • A 20-year-old plaintiff claimed early and prolonged exposure to Meta and YouTube platforms led to anxiety, depression, and body dysmorphia.
  • The lawsuit alleged that the platforms were intentionally designed like “digital casinos” to exploit dopamine-driven engagement and maximise user time.
• Legal Strategy
  • Plaintiffs bypassed Section 230 protection (which shields platforms from liability for user-generated content) by focusing on product design — algorithms, infinite scroll, notifications, and engagement metrics.
  • The jury examined whether harm stemmed from platform architecture rather than specific third-party content.
• Jury Findings
  • Applied the “substantial factor” test and concluded that platform design was a significant contributor to the harm.
  • Found evidence of conscious disregard for user safety, supported by internal company research showing awareness of risks but continued harmful practices.

Parallel Verdict in New Mexico

• Meta’s Liability
  • Found liable under consumer protection law for misleading users about platform safety.
  • The case focused on Meta’s decision to expand end-to-end encryption despite internal warnings about increased risks of child exploitation.
• Damages
  • Awarded $375 million in damages.

India’s Regulatory Framework for Children on the Internet

• Information Technology Act, 2000
  • Prohibits harmful and explicit content involving children.
  • Mandates quick removal (within 2–3 hours) of unlawful content.
  • Requires reporting of offences under laws like POCSO.
• Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023
  • Requires verifiable parental consent for processing children’s data.
  • Prohibits tracking, behavioural monitoring, and targeted advertising directed at children.
• IT (Reasonable Security Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Personal Data or Information) Rules, 2011 (SPDI Rules)
  • Ensure data is collected for specific purposes with consent.
  • Restrict disclosure of sensitive personal data.
• Awareness and Capacity Building
  • CERT-In initiatives include safety advisories, awareness campaigns, and cybersecurity guidance.
  • Information Security Education and Awareness (ISEA) programme has conducted thousands of workshops, training teachers, police personnel, and volunteers.
• Technical and Enforcement Measures
  • Blocking of child sexual abuse material (CSAM) through global databases and collaboration with agencies like NCMEC (USA).
  • Promotion of parental control filters and cyber safety awareness.

Implications

• Global
  • Sets a precedent for holding social media companies accountable for addictive design features and their impact on youth mental health.
  • May encourage more lawsuits worldwide and push platforms to redesign algorithms and safety features.
• For India
  • Reinforces the need for stronger enforcement of the DPDP Act, 2023, and IT Rules regarding children’s data and content moderation.
  • Highlights the urgency of digital literacy, parental controls, and age-appropriate design in Indian regulations.
• For Social Media Platforms
  • Increased legal and financial risks for harmful design choices.
  • Pressure to prioritise user safety over engagement metrics.

Prelims

• Key terms: Section 230, Digital Personal Data Protection Act 2023, IT Rules 2021, POCSO Act, CERT-In
• Data: $6 million damages (Meta 70%, YouTube 30%); $375 million in parallel New Mexico verdict
• Related: Online Safety for Children, Cyber Laws in India

GS-2 (Governance & Social Justice)

• Protection of children in the digital ecosystem
• Regulation of social media platforms

GS-3 (Internal Security)

• Cyber threats to children and mental health impacts

Essay / Interview

• “Social Media Addiction and Youth Mental Health: Balancing Innovation with Regulation”
• “From User-Generated Content to Platform Design: The Evolving Liability of Social Media Companies”

1. With reference to the recent U.S. social media addiction trial, consider the following statements:
2. Meta and YouTube were found liable for designing addictive platforms that harmed a young user.
3. The jury awarded $6 million in damages, with Meta liable for 70% and YouTube for 30%.
4. The case primarily relied on Section 230 of the Communications Decency Act for liability.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

2. Section 230 of the U.S. Communications Decency Act primarily protects platforms from liability for:

(a) Their own content design

(b) User-generated content

(c) Advertising practices

(d) Data privacy violations

Answer: (b)

3. In India, which Act requires verifiable parental consent for processing children’s personal data?

(a) IT Act, 2000

(b) Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023

(c) POCSO Act, 2012

(d) Juvenile Justice Act, 2015

Answer: (b)

4. Which of the following is NOT a key Indian regulatory measure for child online safety?

(a) CERT-In advisories

(b) PRAGYATA Guidelines

(c) SPDI Rules 2011

(d) FDI policy in e-commerce

Answer: (d)

1. “The U.S. jury verdicts against Meta and YouTube mark a significant shift in holding social media platforms accountable for harmful design choices.” Discuss the implications for global regulation of social media and lessons for India. (15 marks / 250 words)
2. Examine India’s regulatory framework for protecting children on social media, including the DPDP Act 2023 and IT Rules 2021. What gaps remain? (10 marks / 150 words)
3. “Social media addiction among children is not just a health issue but a societal and regulatory challenge.” Analyse this statement and suggest a comprehensive strategy for India. (15 marks / 250 words)
4. Essay (250 marks) “Digital Addiction and Youth Mental Health: The Need for Responsible Innovation and Regulation in the Social Media Age.”
   
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