Why in News?

• The Institute of Indian Foundrymen (IIF) and CSIR-Central Road Research Institute (CSIR-CRRI) have signed an agreement to develop practical solutions for utilising Waste Foundry Sand in road construction.
• This initiative aims to address the environmental challenge of large-scale foundry waste disposal while promoting resource efficiency and sustainable infrastructure development.

About Waste Foundry Sand

• Definition
  • A byproduct generated during the production of ferrous and non-ferrous metal castings.
  • High-quality silica sand that has been used and discarded after the casting process.
• Characteristics
  • Physical and chemical properties vary depending on the type of casting process and industry.
  • Classification is based on the binder system used:
    • Clay-bonded (Green) Sand:
      • Composed of 85–95% high-quality silica sand + 4–10% bentonite clay as binder.
      • Naturally occurring materials blended together.
    • Chemically Bonded Sand:
      • Used in core making and mould making where high strength is required to withstand molten metal heat.
• Environmental Challenge
  • Generated in huge quantities across foundry clusters.
  • Traditional disposal in landfills creates environmental and land-use problems.

Significance of the Initiative

• Circular Economy & Resource Efficiency
  • Converts industrial waste into a valuable resource for road construction (sub-base, embankment, etc.).
  • Reduces the need for natural sand mining.
• Environmental Benefits
  • Minimises landfill burden and associated pollution.
  • Supports national goals of waste minimisation and sustainable development.
• Infrastructure Angle
  • Promotes use of industrial byproducts in national highway and rural road projects.
  • Aligns with National Green Highways Policy and Waste to Wealth initiatives.

Prelims

• Key terms: Waste Foundry Sand, Clay-bonded (Green) Sand, Chemically Bonded Sand, CSIR-CRRI, Institute of Indian Foundrymen (IIF)
• Related: Circular Economy, Industrial Waste Utilisation, Sustainable Road Construction

GS-3 (Environment & Economy)

• Waste management, resource efficiency, and application of industrial byproducts in infrastructure.

GS-3 (Science & Technology)

• Role of CSIR laboratories in applied research for sustainable development.

Essay / Interview

• “Turning Industrial Waste into National Asset: The Potential of Waste Foundry Sand in Road Construction”
• “Circular Economy in Practice: From Waste Management to Sustainable Infrastructure.”

1. Waste Foundry Sand is primarily a byproduct of:

(a) Thermal power plants

(b) Metal casting industries

(c) Cement manufacturing

(d) Textile industry

Answer: (b)

2. Which of the following is a major component of clay-bonded (green) foundry sand?

(a) Fly ash

(b) Bentonite clay

(c) Gypsum

(d) Limestone

Answer: (b)

3. The recent agreement for utilisation of Waste Foundry Sand in road construction is between:

1. Institute of Indian Foundrymen (IIF)
2. CSIR-Central Road Research Institute (CSIR-CRRI)

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither

Answer: (c)

4. Utilisation of Waste Foundry Sand in road construction supports which national priority?

(a) Nuclear energy expansion

(b) Circular economy and waste minimisation

(c) Deep-sea mining

(d) Space technology

Answer: (b)

1. “Industrial waste such as foundry sand can become a valuable resource for infrastructure if properly harnessed.” Discuss the environmental and economic significance of utilising Waste Foundry Sand in road construction. (15 marks / 250 words)
2. Examine the role of scientific institutions like CSIR in promoting sustainable development through waste valorisation. (10 marks / 150 words)
3. “Circular economy is the need of the hour for India’s sustainable growth.” Analyse this statement with reference to initiatives involving industrial byproducts like Waste Foundry Sand. (15 marks / 250 words)
4. Essay (250 marks) “From Waste to Wealth: Transforming Industrial Byproducts into Building Blocks of Modern India.”

 

Why in News?

• The Ministry of Defence has signed a contract for the Inspection (Depot Level) of the P-8I Long-Range Maritime Reconnaissance Aircraft along with the procurement of the Tunguska Air Defence Missile System. This move ensures continued operational readiness of the Indian Navy’s critical maritime patrol fleet.

About P-8I Poseidon Aircraft

• Full Name & Role
  • P-8I Poseidon — Long-range, multi-mission maritime patrol aircraft.
  • Manufactured by Boeing (USA) specifically for the Indian Navy.
• Induction & Replacement
  • Replaced the ageing Tupolev Tu-142 fleet of the Indian Navy.
  • It is the Indian variant of the P-8A Poseidon used by the United States Navy.
• Key Capabilities
  • Advanced sensors and weapons systems for detecting submarines, surface vessels, and other threats.
  • Missions include:
    • Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW)
    • Anti-Surface Warfare (ASuW)
    • Intelligence, Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR)
    • Maritime patrol
• Technical Specifications
  • Maximum Take-off Gross Weight: 85,139 kg
  • Maximum Speed: 789 km/h
  • Maximum Altitude: 12,496 m
  • Range: Over 2,222 km with 4 hours time on station

Significance of the Contract

• Operational Readiness
  • Depot-level inspection will extend the service life and maintain high availability of the P-8I fleet.
• Maritime Security
  • Strengthens the Indian Navy’s ability to monitor the Indian Ocean Region (IOR), detect submarine threats, and safeguard sea lanes.
• Indigenisation & Atmanirbhar Bharat
  • While the platform is of foreign origin, depot-level maintenance contracts support long-term sustainment with increasing indigenous content.

Prelims

• Key terms: P-8I Poseidon, Long-Range Maritime Reconnaissance Aircraft, Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW), Boeing
• Facts: Replaced Tu-142; Max speed 789 km/h; Max altitude 12,496 m; Range >2,222 km

GS-3 (Defence & Security)

• Naval modernisation, maritime domain awareness, and long-range patrol aircraft.

GS-2 (IR)

• India–USA defence cooperation (P-8I is based on US Navy’s P-8A).

Essay / Interview

• “Maritime Domain Awareness: The Role of Long-Range Patrol Aircraft in India’s Naval Strategy”
• “Atmanirbhar Bharat in Defence: Balancing Import and Indigenous Capabilities.”

1. The P-8I Poseidon aircraft is primarily used for:

(a) Strategic bombing

(b) Long-range maritime reconnaissance and anti-submarine warfare

(c) Air-to-air combat

(d) Transport operations

Answer: (b)

2. P-8I Poseidon was procured by the Indian Navy to replace:

(a) MiG-29K

(b) Tupolev Tu-142

(c) Jaguar

(d) Sukhoi Su-30MKI

Answer: (b)

3. Which of the following is NOT a mission capability of the P-8I aircraft?

(a) Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW)

(b) Anti-Surface Warfare (ASuW)

(c) Maritime patrol and surveillance

(d) Supersonic air combat

Answer: (d)

4. The P-8I is a variant of which aircraft used by the United States Navy?

(a) P-3 Orion

(b) P-8A Poseidon

(c) E-2 Hawkeye

(d) E-3 Sentry

Answer: (b)

1. “Long-range maritime patrol aircraft like the P-8I are critical for India’s maritime security in the Indian Ocean Region.” Discuss the capabilities of the P-8I and its strategic importance. (15 marks / 250 words)
2. Examine the role of foreign defence platforms in India’s naval modernisation while moving towards greater self-reliance. (10 marks / 150 words)
3. “Maintenance and sustainment are as important as induction in defence capability building.” Analyse this statement in the context of the recent depot-level inspection contract for P-8I aircraft. (15 marks / 250 words)
4. Essay (250 marks) “Securing the Seas: India’s Evolving Maritime Doctrine and the Need for Advanced Surveillance Platforms.”

Why in News?

• Novo Nordisk, the Danish company behind the blockbuster weight-loss and diabetes drug Ozempic (semaglutide), has filed a trademark infringement case in the Delhi High Court against Dr Reddy’s Laboratories (DRL) over the brand name “Olymviq”.
• After failing to win patent infringement cases against Indian generic manufacturers, Novo Nordisk is now trying to protect its brand identity. DRL has agreed in court to temporarily stop manufacturing and selling the drug under the name “Olymviq”. DRL has already launched semaglutide under the brand “Obeda” for type-2 diabetes.

Key Issues in the Case

• Trademark Dispute
  • Novo Nordisk argued that “Olymviq” is deceptively similar to “Ozempic” in sound and could cause confusion among doctors and patients.
  • DRL had planned to market semaglutide under three names: Obeda, Olymviq, and Mashlo.
• Legal Developments
  • DRL applied for the “Olymviq” trademark in July 2025 but faced objections.
  • Fresh trademark applications were filed recently, including for the logo in March 2026.
  • DRL has assured the court that it will not use “Olymviq” for now.
• Positioning of Olymviq
  • Novo Nordisk markets Ozempic primarily for weight loss.
  • DRL has not clearly disclosed whether Olymviq is for diabetes, weight loss, or both.

Judicial Precedents on Deceptive Similarity in Drug Trademarks

• Cadila Healthcare Case (2001) – Supreme Court Ruling
  • Laid down key principles for assessing “deceptive similarity” in pharmaceutical trademarks (Falcigo vs Falcitab).
  • Held that even small mistakes in medicines can have serious health consequences.
  • Set a lower threshold for confusion in drug names compared to other goods because “drugs are poisons, not sweets”.
  • Criteria include phonetic similarity, visual resemblance, and similarity in nature and use of the drugs.
• Subsequent Application
  • Bombay High Court (2023) reiterated that even the slightest chance of confusion in medicinal products is sufficient to restrict similar trademarks.
• Permissible Use
  • Section 13 of the Trademarks Act prohibits monopolising International Non-Proprietary Names (INNs).
  • Companies can derive brand names from INNs if they are clearly distinguishable (e.g., Letroz vs Letero case, 2022).

Background: Novo Nordisk vs Indian Generics

• Patent Battles
  • Novo Nordisk lost patent infringement cases against Indian companies, including Dr Reddy’s.
  • Courts allowed DRL to manufacture and export generic semaglutide.
  • Injectable semaglutide patent has now expired in India.
• Current Focus
  • Novo Nordisk is now trying to protect its oral semaglutide drug Rybelsus (launched in India in December 2025).
  • DRL has assured that its tablet formulation differs in salt composition and does not infringe the Rybelsus patent.

Significance

• For Pharma Industry
  • Highlights the tension between innovator companies protecting brand equity and generic manufacturers entering the market after patent expiry.
  • Raises questions on trademark protection vs public access to affordable medicines.
• For India
  • Reinforces India’s position as the “pharmacy of the world” with strong generic capabilities.
  • Balances intellectual property protection with access to affordable drugs.
• Public Health Angle
  • Semaglutide (GLP-1 agonist) is a breakthrough drug for type-2 diabetes and obesity management.
  • Affordable generics can significantly expand access in India and globally.

Prelims

• Key terms: Semaglutide, Ozempic, Olymviq, Deceptive Similarity, International Non-Proprietary Name (INN), Trademarks Act Section 13
• Related: Cadila Healthcare Case (2001), Patent vs Trademark disputes in pharma

GS-2 (Governance & IR)

• Intellectual Property Rights regime, access to medicines, and balancing innovation with public health.

GS-3 (Economy & Science & Technology)

• Pharmaceutical industry, generic drugs, and India’s role in global drug supply.

Essay / Interview

• “Innovation vs Access: The Ongoing Battle between Patents, Trademarks and Affordable Medicines in India”
• “India as Pharmacy of the World: Challenges in Protecting Intellectual Property while Ensuring Drug Affordability.”

1. The drug “Ozempic” is primarily associated with which company?

(a) Dr Reddy’s Laboratories

(b) Novo Nordisk

(c) Sun Pharma

(d) Cipla

Answer: (b)

With reference to the Cadila Healthcare case (2001), consider the following statements:

1. It laid down principles for assessing deceptive similarity in pharmaceutical trademarks.
2. The Supreme Court held that a higher threshold of confusion applies to medicines compared to other goods.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither
5. Answer: (a)

(Note: The Court actually set a lower threshold for confusion in medicines.)

3. Semaglutide is used primarily for the treatment of:

(a) Cancer

(b) Type-2 diabetes and obesity

(c) Hypertension

(d) HIV/AIDS

Answer: (b)

4. Which section of the Trademarks Act prohibits monopolising International Non-Proprietary Names (INNs)?

(a) Section 9

(b) Section 11

(c) Section 13

(d) Section 29

Answer: (c)

1. “The tension between brand protection and generic competition is a recurring theme in India’s pharmaceutical sector.” Discuss with reference to the recent Ozempic vs Olymviq trademark dispute. (15 marks / 250 words)
2. Examine the Supreme Court’s ruling in the Cadila Healthcare case and its implications for trademark disputes involving medicines. (10 marks / 150 words)
3. “India must balance intellectual property protection with the right to affordable healthcare.” Analyse this statement in the context of patent and trademark battles involving blockbuster drugs like semaglutide. (15 marks / 250 words)
4. Essay (250 marks) “Pharmacy of the World or Protector of Patents? India’s Evolving Stance on Drug Accessibility and Innovation.”

Why in News?

• The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) 2025 reveals that women’s wages grew faster than men’s across all employment categories in 2025.
• However, a substantial gender wage gap continues to persist, with women earning significantly less than men in salaried jobs, casual labour, and self-employment.
• This mixed trend highlights both progress in wage growth and deep-rooted structural inequalities in India’s labour market.

Key Findings from PLFS 2025

• Employment Levels
  • Total employed: 61.6 crore
  • Male workers: 41.6 crore
  • Female workers: 20.0 crore
• Wage Growth (2025)
  • Salaried Jobs: Women +7.2% vs Men +5.8%
  • Self-employment: Women +8.8% vs Men +8.0%
  • Casual Labour: Women +5.4% vs Men -0.2%
• Persistent Wage Gap
  • Salaried jobs: Women earn only 76% of male earnings
  • Casual labour: Women earn 69% of male wages
  • Self-employment: Women earn just 36% of male earnings
• Employment Structure Shift
  • Share of women in salaried jobs rose to 18.2% (from 16.6% in 2024)
  • Decline in self-employment among women, indicating a move toward more secure jobs
• Broader Labour Market Trends
  • Rural unemployment: 2.4% (down from 2.5%)
  • Urban unemployment: 4.8% (down from 5%)
  • Youth unemployment: 9.9% (down from 10.3%)
  • Female youth unemployment increased slightly

Causes of Gender Wage Gap

• Structural factors: Lower female labour force participation
• Occupational segregation: Women concentrated in low-paying and informal jobs
• Limited access to education, skills, and capital
• Social norms and unpaid care responsibilities (domestic work and childcare)
• Informal sector dominance (where most women are employed)

Significance

• Economic Growth
  • Closing the gender wage gap can boost household incomes, increase productivity, and support inclusive growth.
• Social Impact
  • Reduces poverty, improves women’s empowerment, and promotes gender equality.
• Policy Implication
  • Highlights the need for targeted interventions in skill development, formal job creation, and enforcement of equal pay principles.

5. Prelims

• Key terms: Gender Wage Gap, Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS), Occupational Segregation
• Data: Women earn 76% (salaried), 69% (casual), 36% (self-employment) of male wages; Female employment 20 crore out of 61.6 crore total

GS-1 (Society)

• Gender inequality, women’s labour force participation, and social issues.

GS-3 (Economy)

• Labour market trends, informal sector, and inclusive growth.

Essay / Interview

• “Closing the Gender Wage Gap: Key to Achieving Inclusive and Sustainable Economic Growth in India”
• “Despite faster wage growth, why does the gender pay disparity persist in India?”

1. According to PLFS 2025, in which employment category did women record the highest wage growth in 2025?

(a) Salaried jobs

(b) Casual labour

(c) Self-employment

(d) Agriculture

Answer: (c)

2. With reference to the gender wage gap in India, consider the following statements:
3. Women earn less than men across all job categories.
4. The gap is widest in self-employment.
5. Women’s share in salaried jobs increased in 2025.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

3. The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) is conducted by:

(a) NITI Aayog (b) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI)

(c) Ministry of Labour and Employment

(d) Reserve Bank of India

Answer: (b)

4. Which of the following is NOT a major cause of the gender wage gap in India?

(a) Higher female labour force participation

(b) Occupational segregation

(c) Unpaid care responsibilities

(d) Concentration in informal jobs

Answer: (a)

1. “Despite recording faster wage growth, women continue to face a significant gender wage gap in India.” Discuss the findings of PLFS 2025 and suggest measures to bridge this gap. (15 marks / 250 words)
2. Examine the structural factors responsible for persistent gender wage inequality in the Indian labour market. (10 marks / 150 words)
3. “Closing the gender wage gap is essential for achieving inclusive and sustainable economic development.” Analyse this statement with reference to recent labour survey data. (15 marks / 250 words)
4. Essay (250 marks) “Women at Work: From Labour Force Participation to Wage Parity – The Unfinished Agenda of Gender Equality in India.”
   
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